Preparing for the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam in 2025? You’re in the right place! This article shares the most up-to-date SY0-701 practice questions and answers to help you master the exam content and boost your confidence. Designed to align with the latest exam objectives, these resources will guide you toward achieving your Security+ certification with ease. Let’s dive in and explore the essential tools to ensure your success!
In this article, we’re excited to offer a selection of the latest SY0-701 practice questions and answers for free. With a comprehensive collection of 718 up-to-date exam questions and answers available, you can access the full set at Pass4itSure. These resources are regularly updated to reflect the current exam standards, ensuring you’re well-prepared to pass with confidence!
2025 SY0-701 Free Practice Questions
To give you a head start, we’ve included a sample of the latest SY0-701 practice questions below. These questions are crafted to mirror the real exam format, helping you familiarize yourself with the types of challenges you’ll face. Test your knowledge, review the answers, and build your skills as you prepare for the CompTIA Security+ certification!
| Number of exam questions | Official Practice Quesitons |
| 20 (FREE) | Q1-Q10 (Free) |
Question 1:
Which of the following should a security operations center use to improve its incident response procedure?
A. Playbooks
B. Frameworks
C. Baselines
D. Benchmarks
Correct Answer: A
A playbook is a documented set of procedures that outlines the step-by-step response to specific types of cybersecurity incidents. Security Operations Centers (SOCs) use playbooks to improve consistency, efficiency, and accuracy during incident response.
Playbooks help ensure that the correct procedures are followed based on the type of incident, ensuring swift and effective remediation. Frameworks provide general guidelines for implementing security but are not specific enough for incident response procedures.
Baselines represent normal system behavior and are used for anomaly detection, not incident response guidance.
Benchmarks are performance standards and are not directly related to incident response.
Question 2:
Which of the following would be most useful in determining whether the long-term cost to transfer a risk is less than the impact of the risk?
A. ARO
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. ALE
E. SLE
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business- critical legacy system.
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?
A. Exception
B. Segmentation
C. Risk transfer
D. Compensating controls
Correct Answer: D
Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk.
In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks by disabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 29 Security Controls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 1.1 1
Question 4:
Which of the following is the best reason to complete an audit in a banking environment?
A. Regulatory requirement
B. Organizational change
C. Self-assessment requirement
D. Service-level requirement
Correct Answer: A
A regulatory requirement is a mandate imposed by a government or an authority that must be followed by an organization or an individual.
In a banking environment, audits are often required by regulators to ensure compliance with laws, standards, and policies related to security, privacy, and financial reporting.
Audits help to identify and correct any gaps or weaknesses in the security posture and the internal controls of the organization.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 507 Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications 2
Question 5:
Which of the following is the first step to take when creating an anomaly detection process?
A. Selecting events
B. Building a baseline
C. Selecting logging options
D. Creating an event log
Correct Answer: B
The first step in creating an anomaly detection process is building a baseline of normal behavior within the system. This baseline serves as a reference point to identify deviations or anomalies that could indicate a security incident.
By understanding what normal activity looks like, security teams can more effectively detect and respond to suspicious behavior.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Monitoring and Baselines.
Question 6:
A systems administrator notices that the research and development department is not using the company VPN when accessing various company-related services and systems.
Which of the following scenarios describes this activity?
A. Espionage
B. Data exfiltration
C. Nation-state attack
D. Shadow IT
Correct Answer: D
The activity described, where a department is not using the company VPN when accessing various company-related services and systems, is an example of Shadow IT. Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems, devices, software, applications, and services without explicit IT department approval.
Espionage: Involves spying to gather confidential information, not simply bypassing the VPN.
Data exfiltration: Refers to unauthorized transfer of data, which might involve not using a VPN but is more specific to the act of transferring data out of the organization.
Nation-state attack: Involves attacks sponsored by nation-states, which is not indicated in the scenario.
Shadow IT: Use of unauthorized systems and services, which aligns with bypassing the company VPN.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1 – Compare and contrast common threat actors and motivations (Shadow IT).
Question 7:
An organization plans to take online orders via a new website. Three web servers are available for this website. However, the organization does not want to reveal the network addresses or quantity of the individual servers to the general public.
Which of the following would best fulfill these requirements?
A. IPSec
B. Explicit proxy
C. Port security
D. Virtual IP
Correct Answer: D
Question 8:
An organization\’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?
A. NGFW
B. WAF
C. TLS
D. SD-WAN
Correct Answer: B
A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution.
A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization\’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet.
A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data.
References: Buffer Overflows -CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 ?2.3, Web Application Firewalls -CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 ?2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]
Question 9:
Which of the following is used to quantitatively measure the criticality of a vulnerability?
A. CVE
B. CVSS
C. CIA
D. CERT
Correct Answer: B
CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that provides a standardized way to assess and communicate the severity and risk of vulnerabilities.
CVSS uses a set of metrics and formulas to calculate a numerical score ranging from 0 to 10, where higher scores indicate higher criticality.
CVSS can help organizations prioritize remediation efforts and compare vulnerabilities across different systems and vendors. The other options are not used to measure the criticality of a vulnerability, but rather to identify, classify, or report them.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 39
Question 10:
A network administrator deployed a DNS logging tool that logs suspicious websites that are visited and then sends a daily report based on various weighted metrics.
Which of the following best describes the type of control the administrator put in place?
A. Preventive
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Detective
Correct Answer: D
The tool that the network administrator deployed is described as one that logs suspicious websites and sends a daily report based on various weighted metrics.
This fits the description of a detective control. Detective controls are designed to identify and log security events or incidents after they have occurred.
By analyzing these logs and generating reports, the tool helps in detecting potential security breaches, thus allowing for further investigation and response.
References: Based on the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Resources, specifically under the domain of Security Operations, which discusses different types of security controls, including detective controls.
Question 11:
After multiple on premises security solutions were migrated to the cloud, the incident response time increased. The analyst are spending a long time to trace information on different cloud consoles and correlating data in different formats.
Which of the following can be used to optimize the incident response time?
A. CASB
B. VPC
C. SWG
D. CMS
Correct Answer: A
CASB vs SWG CASB is the more optimal solution for multiple on premises security solutions CASB services are explicitly designed to fit the needs of large enterprises You can access link and read about it: https://www.gend.co/blog/casb-or-swg-which-is-best-option-for-your-enterprise
Question 12:
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25.
Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53
D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Correct Answer: D
The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to send outbound DNS requests (B).
References: You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1 Professor Messer\’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2 TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28: Firewall Rules3
Question 13:
An IT manager is increasing the security capabilities of an organization after a data classification initiative determined that sensitive data could be exfiltrated from the environment.
Which of the following solutions would mitigate the risk?
A. XDR
B. SPF
C. DLP
D. DMARC
Correct Answer: C
To mitigate the risk of sensitive data being exfiltrated from the environment, the IT manager should implement a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution.
DLP monitors and controls the movement of sensitive data, ensuring that unauthorized transfers are blocked and potential data breaches are prevented. XDR (Extended Detection and Response) is useful for threat detection across multiple environments but doesn\’t specifically address data exfiltration. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) helps prevent email spoofing, not data exfiltration.
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) also addresses email security and spoofing, not data exfiltration.
Question 14:
An organization wants to ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment.
Which of the following security measures would best support this objective?
A. Input validation
B. Code signing
C. SQL injection
D. Static analysis
Correct Answer: B
To ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment, the best security measure is code signing. Code signing uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of the software, ensuring that the code has not been tampered with or altered after it was signed.
Code signing: Involves signing code with a digital signature to verify its authenticity and integrity, ensuring the compiled binaries have not been altered.
Input validation: Ensures that only properly formatted data enters an application but does not verify the integrity of compiled binaries.
SQL injection: A type of attack, not a security measure. Static analysis: Analyzes code for vulnerabilities and errors but does not ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in production.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.4 – Explain the importance of using appropriate cryptographic solutions (Code signing).
Question 15: (2025 Newest Simulation Labs)
SIMULATION
A systems administrator is configuring a site-to-site VPN between two branch offices. Some of the settings have already been configured correctly. The systems administrator has been provided the following requirements as part of completing the configuration:
1.
Most secure algorithms should be selected
2.
All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN
3.
A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the two VPN Concentrators to configure the appropriate settings.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
A. See the part for all the Solution
B. PlaceHolder
C. PlaceHolder
D. PlaceHolder
Correct Answer: A
To configure the site-to-site VPN between the two branch offices according to the provided requirements, here are the detailed steps and settings that need to be applied to the VPN concentrators:
Requirements:
Most secure algorithms should be selected.
All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN.
A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators.
VPN Concentrator 1 Configuration:
Phase 1:
Peer IP address: 5.5.5.20 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 2) Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)
Negotiation mode: MAIN
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
DH key group: 14
Phase 2:
Mode: Tunnel
Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
Local network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24
Remote network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24
VPN Concentrator 2 Configuration:
Phase 1:
Peer IP address: 5.5.5.5 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 1) Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)
Negotiation mode: MAIN
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
DH key group: 14
Phase 2:
Mode: Tunnel
Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
Local network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24
Remote network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24
Summary:
Peer IP Address: Set to the IP address of the remote VPN concentrator.
Auth Method: PSK for using a pre-shared key.
Negotiation Mode: MAIN for the initial setup.
Encryption Algorithm: AES256, which is a strong and secure algorithm. Hash Algorithm: SHA256, which provides strong hashing. DH Key Group: 14 for strong Diffie-Hellman key exchange. Phase 2 Protocol: ESP for encryption and integrity.
Local and Remote Networks: Properly configure the local and remote network addresses to match each branch office subnet.
By configuring these settings on both VPN concentrators, the site-to-site VPN will meet the requirements for strong security algorithms, encryption of all traffic, and authentication using a pre-shared key.
Question 16:
Which of the following is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD program?
A. End of life
B. Buffer overflow
C. VM escape
D. Jailbreaking
Correct Answer: D
Jailbreaking is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) program. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the manufacturer\’s or the carrier\’s restrictions on a device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, to gain root access and install unauthorized or custom software.
Jailbreaking can compromise the security of the device and the data stored on it, as well as expose it to malware, viruses, or hacking. Jailbreaking can also violate the warranty and the terms of service of the device, and make it incompatible with the company\’s security policies and standards.
Therefore, a company setting up a BYOD program should prohibit jailbreaking and enforce device compliance and encryption.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 76. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.4, page 11.
Question 17:
A security analyst is investigating an alert that was produced by endpoint protection software. The analyst determines this event was a false positive triggered by an employee who attempted to download a file.
Which of the following is the most likely reason the download was blocked?
A. A misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software
B. A zero-day vulnerability in the file
C. A supply chain attack on the endpoint protection vendor
D. Incorrect file permissions
Correct Answer: A
The most likely reason the download was blocked, resulting in a false positive, is a misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software. False positives occur when legitimate actions are incorrectly identified as threats due to incorrect settings or overly aggressive rules in the security software.
Misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software: Common cause of false positives, where legitimate activities are flagged incorrectly due to improper settings.
Zero-day vulnerability: Refers to previously unknown vulnerabilities, which are less likely to be associated with a false positive. Supply chain attack: Involves compromising the software supply chain, which is a broader and more severe issue than a simple download being blocked.
Incorrect file permissions: Would prevent access to files but not typically cause an alert in endpoint protection software.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3 – Explain various activities associated with vulnerability management (False positives).
Question 18:
An engineer recently deployed a group of 100 web servers in a cloud environment. Per the security policy, all web-server ports except 443 should be disabled.
Which of the following can be used to accomplish this task?
A. Application allow list
B. SWG
C. Host-based firewall
D. VPN
Correct Answer: C
Host-based firewall – This is a firewall on a host where you can configured rules for ports/connections allowed on that specific host.
As the question specifically is asking for web-server ports to be blocked, it would make more sense to configure rules to block the ports on each web server.
========================
Other Choices:
Application allow list – A list of applications and application components that are permitted to reside or perform actions on a device SWG(Secure Web Gateway) – A security product that operates between employees and the internet by filtering
unsafe content from web traffic to stop cyber threats and data breaches. They also block risky or unauthorized user behavior.
SWGs usually analyses the content of traffic.
VPN (Virtual Private Network) – A service that establishes a secure encrypted connection between networks over the internet. Hosts connected on the network will behave logically as if they\’re on the same network even if they are a physically not.
Question 19:
Which of the following control types is focused primarily on reducing risk before an incident occurs?
A. Preventive
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Detective
Correct Answer: A
“Preventive controls act before an event, preventing it from advancing”. Deterrent – “acts to discourage the attacker by reducing the likelhood of success from the perspective of the attacker”.
Question 20:
Which of the following best describe why a process would require a two-person integrity security control?
A. To Increase the chance that the activity will be completed in half of the time the process would take only one user to complete
B. To permit two users from another department to observe the activity that is being performed by an authorized user
C. To reduce the risk that the procedures are performed incorrectly or by an unauthorized user
D. To allow one person to perform the activity while being recorded on the CCTV camera
Correct Answer: C
A two-person integrity security control is implemented to minimize the risk of errors or unauthorized actions. This control ensures that at least two individuals are involved in critical operations, which helps to verify the accuracy of the process and prevents unauthorized users from acting alone.
It\’s a security measure commonly used in sensitive operations, like financial transactions or access to critical systems, to ensure accountability and accuracy.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Security Operations and Management.
Conclusion
Achieving the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification is a significant step toward advancing your cybersecurity career. By leveraging the free practice questions shared in this article and accessing the full collection of 718 updated questions at Pass4itSure, you’ll be well-equipped to tackle the exam with confidence. Start your preparation today, practice diligently, and take the first step toward certification success. Best of luck on your SY0-701 journey!
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